CTPRP試験無料問題集「Shared Assessments Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) 認定」

A. Reviewing the third-party provider's customer service record

B. Analyzing the potential scalability of the service

C. Evaluating the integration capabilities with existing systems

D. Identifying the specific cloud service model used

A. Implementing uniform security protocols across all primary third-party partners.

B. Focusing on strengthening the security measures of primary third-party partners.

C. Conducting comprehensive due diligence on all parties within the extended network.

D. Limiting the number of subcontractors used by direct third-party partners.

A. It shows that the incident response was not initiated in a timely manner.

B. It suggests the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) metrics were not calculated correctly.

C. It reflects an adequate level of preparedness and compliance with industry standards.

D. It indicates that the Recovery Point Objective was not met as the data loss exceeded the allowable period.

A. Weekly incident reports and data breach notifications.

B. Monthly performance reviews and user access logs.

C. Service level agreements, security certifications, and audit attestation reports.

D. Annual financial statements and operational budgets.

A. Delayed internal communications and productivity with minimal revenue impact

B. Substantial financial losses, reduced customer satisfaction, or competitive disadvantage

C. Slowed research and development projects with no immediate revenue implications

D. Minor delays in non-revenue generating activities with limited financial impact

A. Image storage

B. Image creation

C. Image snapshot

D. Image deletion

A. Conduct thorough security testing and validation of the third-party component before integration.

B. Obtain a compliance certificate from the third-party provider without further testing.

C. Use the component as-is, relying on the vendor's reputation for security assurances.

D. Ensure the third-party component is the most cost-effective solution available.

A. unauthorized access and data breaches

B. the deployment of firewalls and antivirus software

C. security protocols and encryption methods

D. software update schedules and patch management

A. The cloud service provider stores image snapshots with strong encryption, but fails to update encryption keys, resulting in outdated security measures.

B. Lack of regular audits on image snapshot processes leads to unnoticed corruption of data snapshots, affecting data recovery operations.

C. Despite having a robust image snapshot approval process, the vendor's slow response to a known vulnerability exposes sensitive data to risks.

D. A cloud service provider fails to properly restrict access to image snapshots, allowing unauthorized users to view and potentially manipulate sensitive organizational data.

A. It leads to the creation of silos and conflicts that undermine risk management.

B. It enhances the organization's capability to respond to market changes rapidly.

C. It fosters rapid innovation by encouraging risk-taking without sufficient oversight.

D. It increases the efficiency of processes and reduces operational costs.

A. Checking if the software can be installed locally for offline use.

B. Ensuring the provider's system offers reliable uptime and support services.

C. Comparing only the initial costs of subscription without assessing long-term scalability.

D. Looking for providers who offer the most advanced AI-driven features.

A. Data access policies of the cloud provider

B. Security certifications held by the provider

C. Level of encryption used by the provider

D. Type of cloud service model

A. Security levels

B. Authentication barriers

C. Verification credentials

D. Authentication methods

A. Ignore the compliance issues assuming they are minor

B. Delegate the responsibility of compliance to the IT department

C. Review the compliance issues and update the security measures accordingly

D. Schedule a meeting to discuss future compliance strategies

A. Changes to administrator access are less critical and therefore do not require rigorous oversight.

B. Administrator access changes pertain to user access management, not infrastructure modifications.

C. Administrator access is often temporary, hence it is not tracked by the change control system.

D. They involve alterations to the software development lifecycle, which are outside the scope of change control.

A. Applying insurance policies to cover potential losses

B. Establishing an internal control system to limit exposure

C. Negotiating terms and conditions through contracts

D. Reducing the risk by implementing advanced technologies

A. A significant change in the vendor's scope of work

B. The vendor's decision to relocate its primary data centers

C. Updating the vendor's technological infrastructure

D. A minor amendment to the service agreement with the vendor

A. Each user manages their security settings within the software independently.

B. A third-party consultant typically handles security separately from the SaaS provider.

C. The end user is primarily responsible for securing their local endpoints only.

D. The SaaS provider is responsible for all aspects of security and performance.

A. To ensure all occupants are familiar with evacuation procedures and can respond quickly in a crisis.

B. To evaluate the response time of local emergency services during different scenarios.

C. To check the operational readiness of emergency equipment like fire extinguishers.

D. To provide a realistic experience of potential emergency scenarios without actual risk.